Philip Goldstein pgold at
Fri Aug 5 06:10:56 MDT 1994

	The discussion of the German and the Russian workingclasses have
blamed Stalinism for many difficulties but exonerrated Marx. The
discussion assumes that oppressive, dictatorial Stalinism blocked the
development of genuinely revolutionary movements but Marx's thought can
still guide and direct them. Is this distinction between Marx and
Stalinism naive? Doesn't Stalinism grow out of Marx's thought, including
his belief that the workingclass must expropriate the expropriators or
take control of the means of production? I don't mean that Marx was not
more sophisticated, liberal, or profound than the Stalinists (or
Marxist-Leninists); I mean that his views are clearly implicated in or
complicit with the practices of the Stalinists. To deny this implication
is to make Marx's ideas timeless, eternally valid and applicable. THat
assumption strikes me as clearly non-Marxist.
Philip Goldstein
Associate Professor of English and Philosophy
University of Delaware (Parallel)


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