No subject

boddhisatva kbevans at panix.com
Fri Apr 26 06:53:34 MDT 1996






		To whom....,



	A hypothetical:



	Let's say the people's war (of some sort) is successful.  Peru
tries to industrialize.  The capitalist nations embargo, the currency is
made worthless externally and the people's factories cannot produce for
export.  The government of Peru then pegs the currency to the US dollar,
accepts US currency, and legalizes the production of concentrated coca
(implicitly for export), under controlled conditions.  Clearly the U.S. goes
nuts, but could the western capitalists resist the temptation of the legal
flow of all that drug money, as the coca cartels send their dollars in to
buy goods legally?  To what extent could the Peruvian government foster
coca exportation before the U.S. declared war?  Would Bolivian, Colombian,
Mexican, and possibly Ecuadoran politicians be made allies of Peru by the
economic pull of the trans-shipment economy and the, now open, flow of US
dollars?   Could revolutionary tendencies in those countries be made to
benefit?



	What I'm trying to get at is the Marxist implications of illegal (by
western standards) economies.  Clearly the opponents of the PCP have attempted
to taint their movement with narco-connection propaganda, so there is no need
to get in to any defense of that group here.  I just can't resolve the
question whether revolutionaries should be bound by moralities (against
opium, coca, marijuana, etc.) that may be the product of a market created by
bourgeois oppression of the industrial proletariat.


	Can a revolutionary movement legitimately use an illicit economy as a
weapon against capital and/or a way to feed and clothe the revolution?



	I am absolutely not implying anything about the PCP, but I'm sure
they will have something to say on this.  Does our new Turkish subscriber
have anything to put in?





	peace





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