[Marxism] Re: Fermat
donaloc at hotmail.com
Mon Apr 26 03:15:17 MDT 2004
Jurriaan, a chara,
Not sure I understand your notation throughout. Anyhow, you're going
into infinite series - the theorem only applies to natural numbers (i.e.
to any point along the infinite series - but still limited).
As such, no such counterexample has been demonstrated. Clearly, the
theorem doesn't hold in regard to n=1 or 2 either - or a whole range of
irrational or fractional numbers - but it doesn't claim that - only
natural numbers above 2.
And whilst I find such anecdotes interesting, I'm not sure I see why
it's here and not some other website.
Is mise le meas,
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