[Marxism] Marx's uses of "mode of production"

Waistline2 at aol.com Waistline2 at aol.com
Wed May 12 18:16:43 MDT 2004

In a message dated 5/12/2004 4:45:01 PM Central Standard Time, 
cbrown at michiganlegal.org writes:

>The wealth of those societies in which the capitalist mode of production
prevails, presents itself as "an immense accumulation of commodities," [1]
its unit being a single commodity. Our investigation must therefore begin
with the analysis of a commodity.<


Any unraveling of a commodity is useless without ascertaining the labor, 
tools and instruments and energy source that goes into its production. It is 
really that simply. Then we ascertain the property relations within. 

Bottom line: Socialism is not and was not a mode of production but a form of 
property relations within the industrial mode of production. Socialist 
accumulation was the accumulation of "something." 

What I have stated and printed is inescapable. 

Is it not obvious that Marx is talking about the capitalist mode of 
industrial production, as it passes from manufacturing and before that the evolution of 
the commodity form - not capitalism, on the basis of handicraft? 

It is really very simple. 

Melvin P. 

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