cbrown at michiganlegal.org
Thu Oct 13 06:20:15 MDT 2005
There is a much simpler explanation. It has
nothing to do with cultural ideology. Initially the
English were afraid of the Spanish Armada. After all,
Spain claimed all of the New World except Brazil.
When the French settled in Florida, Spain slaughtered
the French settlers. It was not until after the
Armada was defeated that the British could settle, so
Spain had the New World to itself for about a century.
Spain brought the first slaves. There were a
million Black slaves in the Americas before the first
English settler arrived. In 1619 when the English
acquired their first slaves, other Europeans had had
slaves for over a century growing sugar cane, indigo,
rice end other crops that did not grow in Europe.
The English followed suit because the Spaniards had
demonstraterd that slavery was profitable.
CB: Makes sense. In fact, it makes sense to think of the Spanish as the main
"channellors" of the earlier mode from Rome. Afterall, the Spanish
established "Latin America", had Conquistadores.
The British combined (unevenly) wage-labor with colonialism and slavery.
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