[Marxism] two questions on Marx
snedeker at concentric.net
Fri Aug 11 17:55:49 MDT 2006
1. why did Marx rely on a definition of the proletariat as industrial factory workers when there were so many other members of the working class like domestic servants, sailors, dock workers, mine workers, farm workers and of course slaves.
why did Marx insist on defining the capitalist mode of production by the sale of labor power. perhaps this was required by what he called the "law of value" but I am not sure that this was a good enough reason for limiting the definition of the CMP to the sale of labor power. this line of argument led Marx to conclude that the proletariat was a revolutionary class because of its centrality to the accumulation of capital, but was this not a theoretical as well as a political error?
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