[Marxism] re: genders, social orders and violence

M. Junaid Alam alam at lefthook.org
Thu Feb 2 22:57:43 MST 2006

Not sure what's difficult to understand there. Quite simply, I'm saying 
that there is no plausible way to submit a biological reason for 
inferiority in different people-groups, because at varying times empires 
and civilizations have arisen in varying places. So you can't conclude 
Europeans are biologically superior to Arabs because Europe is currently 
more advanced than the Arab world, since the opposite was true around 
900-1400 BCE, etc.

My point is that, therefore, this is not a proper analogy to counter the 
assertion that the source of women's oppression is biological physical 
weakness relative to men, since, despite the rise and fall and ebb and 
flow of civilizations (ie. the historical record shows variance), the 
one constant in virtually all of these civilizations is that the men 
always dominate the women (ie. no historical record of sustained female 
domination). And there are many non-biological variables across 
societies, but there is one biological constant of men being stronger 
than women. So how can you argue the social factors are the determinant 
in women's oppression when, regardless of the social factors, the bottom 
line is that men dominate? From that I'm currently drawing the 
conclusion that the lynchpin for women's oppression is men's ability to 
dole out inferior benefits/roles to women regardless of the 
roles/benefits any social context could theoretically make available, 
because men can exert the threat of force. So even if the pie is 1 
billion volume, men can dictate to women that they can only have 400m 
volume share of the pie.

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