[Marxism] markedivity [was: Slavery and Race]

Mark Lause MLause at cinci.rr.com
Mon Nov 6 22:19:11 MST 2006


Sayan Bhattacharyya clarified, "The white man's burden (to civilize the
natives, etc) used to be specifically called the 'white' man's burden (not
'man's burden')."

So what?  The expression was Kipling's, I think, and came into vogue about
more than two centuries after we have the legal distinctions of race imposed
in North America.  And the term "white man's burden" was never used
universally and is never used today, save in the sense of a historic idea.

So I still don't know what you're trying to suggests that this means....

You further clarified, "By the time we get to Dukakis, 'white man' has
become synonymous with 'man'. (Thus, D. was not identified as the 'white
candidate' but just as 'candidate')."

Yeah, but that still doesn't address the question of what this means....
The words would be used the same for every candidate nowadays, unless they
are not white...in which case they'd probably be noted as a " black
candidate" or "Hispanic candidate" or "Indian candidate."  And I can't think
of many presidential candidates that would be described as the "white
candidate" since the term implies the other candidates were not white, and
we've had zero national elections like that.

So I'm still trying to figure out the meaning of this.  What importance are
you attaching to this????

ML










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