[Marxism] The transition to capitalism: is it in our genes?

Sayan Bhattacharyya ok.president+marxmail at gmail.com
Wed Aug 8 06:18:45 MDT 2007


On 8/8/07, Einde O'Callaghan <einde at gmx.de> wrote:


> On the basis od my knowledge of evolutionary theory, admittedly that of
> a layman, I can see no evolutionary mechanism which can be used to
> explain the rise of capitalism in England as distinct from France, which
> was at roughly the same level of economic development after, say, the
> Black Death - perhaps even more advanced since it was in broad terms a
> richer society.

But *is*  he explaining the "rise of capitalism in England as distinct
from France"?

This is what the NYT article says on this:

"The middle-class values of nonviolence, literacy, long working hours
and a willingness to save emerged only recently in human history, Dr.
Clark argues.

"Because they grew more common in the centuries before 1800, whether
by cultural transmission or evolutionary adaptation, the English
population at last became productive enough to escape from poverty,
*followed quickly by other countries with the same long agrarian
past.*"

<http://www.nytimes.com/2007/08/07/science/07indu.html?em&ex=1186718400&en=1fc82bf48d184b74&ei=5087%0A>

Where is the distinction that you mention, being made? I don't see him
making such a distinction at all.




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