[Marxism] The transition to capitalism: is it in our genes?
ok.president+marxmail at gmail.com
Wed Aug 8 08:18:42 MDT 2007
On 8/8/07, Lajany Otum <lajany_otum at yahoo.co.uk> wrote:
> Sayan finds the use of biology
> and genetics objectionable or distasteful, eg explaining why
> the British colonised India
In that instance, no explanation was provided. You had written:
"putting on a biological
footing the historical fact that India was under the British
boot for more than two centuries, since the social position
of the coloniser and the colonised are both genetic outcomes"
This, however, is not an *explanation*. An explanation needs to
provide a mechanism, a processual description. ( Clark provides one
for his example.)
It is but tautologically true that social positions are genetic
outcomes (through the mediation of the environment). This, however,
does not *explain* anything. It is just as true of any conceivable
phenomenon, such as "The British hunt foxhounds". The tautology is
uninteresting, and has no explanatory power. As with any tautology.
If you look at Clark's hypothesis, he actually presents a mechanism.
It is more than tautological.
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