[Marxism] Benevolent Islam and the Slave Trade

Waistline2 at aol.com Waistline2 at aol.com
Thu Apr 30 11:21:34 MDT 2009


In a message dated 4/30/2009 9:50:10 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time, 
_sartesian at earthlink.net_ (mailto:sartesian at earthlink.net)  writes: 
 
slavery as practiced by the Ottoman's and Moors had nothing in common with  
the commercial slavery based on new world production as practiced by the 
French,  Spanish, Portuguese, British, and US. 
 
Yes the institution existed, but neither in its organization, volume, nor  
treatment of its slaves was it anything like the Atlantic CHATTEL slave 
trade.  << 
 

Comment 
 
New world slavery - commercial slavery, calls forth, help creates the  
foundation for/of, and then reproduces, as the direct social consequence of  
private property as wealth creation, a new mode of production. Commercial  
slavery gives impetus to navigation, science and ushers in, - mediates, the  
transition from simple manufacture, as the underlying configuration of the  
productive forces, to heavy manufacture in all kinds of goods. Nails or steel  
production, wood, foodstuff and water storage for voyages; docks, armaments, 
 insurance companies, augmentation of merchant capital, etc. Heavy 
manufacture is  the prelude - transition, to industrial forms of production. 
 
Commercial slavery for the slave as a person is radically different than  
slavery for the production of use-vales and expansion of the local gene pool. 
 Commercial slavery is the foundation and corner stone for the emergence of 
 modern capital - capitalism, and its self reproducing logic. All forms of  
slavery are not equal. Slavery of antiquity is the society context of  
use-value reproduction and reproduces the system of which it is a part,  without 
the spurs to commercial enterprise founded of the production of exchange  
values. 
 
New World Slavery was all about El Dorado - the quest for gold, as a  
universal medium of value/exchange, or an independent form of wealth/value.  
Actually, it was gold as a movable form of wealth - "independent," that began  
the breakup of the landed property relations identified in its political 
aspects  as feudalism. This was most certainly not a form of ancient slavery, 
running  thousands of years deep in our collective history. 
 
Drugs as commercial enterprise, as in the opium wars are also a corner  
stone of the rise of the bourgeois mode of production, in my opinion. Drug  
history is more complicated, critical and runs back through the mass production 
 of sugar in human history ("Middle East"), all the way back to the 
production of  spices and why and how the trade in spice spurred early exchange. 
Spices were  really means of food preservation and important to the stability 
and growth of  towns, as centers of exchange - labor exchange. Capital 
emerges as convergence,  of which I will not pretend for a moment, I can outline 
definitively. This  convergence rest upon food production. 
 
Placing events in their actual historical setting - time frame, and then  
examining the environment of society reproduction, how labor is deployed, 
would  be the materialist approach. 
 
Marx, did in fact write much and often about new world slavery and its role 
 in the emergence of the bourgeois mode of production. 
 

WL. 
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