[Marxism] Schoolmarm grammar

Wythe Holt jr. wholt at law.ua.edu
Mon Dec 31 05:25:14 MST 2012


What is the difference, in pronunciation or meaning, between "shit" and "shite" (the latter of which is apparently not in use in the US)?



----Original Message-----
From: marxism-bounces+wholt=law.ua.edu at greenhouse.economics.utah.edu on behalf of Einde O'Callaghan
Sent: Mon 12/31/2012 1:42 AM
To: Wythe Holt jr.
Subject: Re: [Marxism] Schoolmarm grammar
 
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On 31.12.2012 02:43, Ian Angus wrote:
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> Rule #1: YOU MUST clip all extraneous text when replying to a message.
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>
> Michael Smith <mjs <at> smithbowen.net> writes:
>
>> I never heard any other preterite for 'shit' than 'shat', which is
>> good Anglo-Saxon. Are there really people who say 'shitted'?  Why,
>> for Grimm's sake?
>
> Living in North America, I've never heard "shat" except as a joke.
> And I've never heard "shitted" at all.
>
> In my experience (not, I realize, always the best guide)
> the commonly used preterite of "shit" is "shit."
> Similar to "hit."
>
> I shit today.
> I shit yesterday.
>
In Ireland the most common form of the infinitive is "to shite" although 
probably more common is "to have a shite" - the past tense being "had a 
shite".

While in London I seem to recall that the most common verb was "to have 
a shit". My only encounter with "shat" in either country was in the 
passive structure  "he got shat upon from a great height!", meaning that 
he got a really raw deal or was treated very badly - the use of the more 
archaic "upon" would indicate that it's a idiomatic expression, perhaps 
having humorous origins.

Incidentally I've always found "Shit!" a much more expressive expletive 
than "Shite!" ;-)

Einde O'callaghan


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