[Marxism] No such thing as a bourgeois revolution?

Shane Mage shmage at pipeline.com
Mon Apr 29 14:17:41 MDT 2013

On Apr 29, 2013, at 3:12 PM, Louis Proyect wrote:
> "... In the second [american model] case the main background is  
> transformation of the patriarchal peasant into a bourgeois farmer."
> Lenin did not get America right...There is much more in common  
> between Germany and the U.S. than is understood here. The end of  
> Reconstruction meant a continuation of semifeudal estates based on  
> debt peonage enforced by terror rather than outright slavery..."

This might make since if the USA were nothing but the old  
confederacy.  But the South for generations remained as much an  
agricultural as an industrial backwater, its workers, agricultural and  
industrial, black and white, the arrière garde  of the North's  
industrial reserve (and its gentry the officer corps of its military)  
army. In the North and West, where all meaningful US economic  
development took place, capitalist farming emerged from an independent  
peasantry on "free" land stolen from the Americans.  Of course, after  
"Redemption" what emancipation amounted to was mainly increased  
freeing of black labor into the reserve army.  The decisive conquests  
of the "Second Revolution" were the transcontinental railway and the  
Homestead Act.

Shane Mage

"Thunderbolt steers all things." Herakleitos of Ephesos, fr. 64

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