[Marxism] No such thing as a bourgeois revolution?
shmage at pipeline.com
Mon Apr 29 14:17:41 MDT 2013
On Apr 29, 2013, at 3:12 PM, Louis Proyect wrote:
> "... In the second [american model] case the main background is
> transformation of the patriarchal peasant into a bourgeois farmer."
> Lenin did not get America right...There is much more in common
> between Germany and the U.S. than is understood here. The end of
> Reconstruction meant a continuation of semifeudal estates based on
> debt peonage enforced by terror rather than outright slavery..."
This might make since if the USA were nothing but the old
confederacy. But the South for generations remained as much an
agricultural as an industrial backwater, its workers, agricultural and
industrial, black and white, the arrière garde of the North's
industrial reserve (and its gentry the officer corps of its military)
army. In the North and West, where all meaningful US economic
development took place, capitalist farming emerged from an independent
peasantry on "free" land stolen from the Americans. Of course, after
"Redemption" what emancipation amounted to was mainly increased
freeing of black labor into the reserve army. The decisive conquests
of the "Second Revolution" were the transcontinental railway and the
"Thunderbolt steers all things." Herakleitos of Ephesos, fr. 64
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