[Marxism] What is the Purpose of Marx's Value Theory?

Philip Dunn hyl0morphster at googlemail.com
Sun May 12 15:00:26 MDT 2013


This is all a bit polarised, one or the other sided and fractious. The 
labour-time and the money measure of value are both needed.

As the beardie from Trier said: Money as the measure of value is the 
necessary form of appearance of the measure of value that is immanent in 
commodities, namely labour-time.

One side has a problem with the TP. The other has a problem connecting 
to labour-time.

On 12/05/13 21:38, Angelus Novus wrote:
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> Shane Mage:
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>> Which, of course, is why Marx sets out the basic theory of value before
>> the chapter on commodity-fetishism.
> Ain't no "chapter on commodity-fetishism."  The section on commodity-fetishism comes at the end of chapter one, as the culmination of the exposition of value.
>
>> The Stalinist economic system had a category of "capital" but allowed it
>> to consist only of *things.* For a "Soviet economist" to say that those
>> "things" were media for exploitation of the waged workers employed to
>> operate them was a sure way to earn a long stay in an "unwaged" Siberian
>> resort.
> WTF, dude?!  Rubin was murdered in the purges!  If you're gonna go ad hominem, at least try to aim for accuracy, otherwise, please do try to reign in your inner-Trotsky.
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