[Marxism] What is the Purpose of Marx's Value Theory?
hyl0morphster at googlemail.com
Sun May 12 15:00:26 MDT 2013
This is all a bit polarised, one or the other sided and fractious. The
labour-time and the money measure of value are both needed.
As the beardie from Trier said: Money as the measure of value is the
necessary form of appearance of the measure of value that is immanent in
commodities, namely labour-time.
One side has a problem with the TP. The other has a problem connecting
On 12/05/13 21:38, Angelus Novus wrote:
> Rule #1: YOU MUST clip all extraneous text when replying to a message.
> Shane Mage:
>> Which, of course, is why Marx sets out the basic theory of value before
>> the chapter on commodity-fetishism.
> Ain't no "chapter on commodity-fetishism." The section on commodity-fetishism comes at the end of chapter one, as the culmination of the exposition of value.
>> The Stalinist economic system had a category of "capital" but allowed it
>> to consist only of *things.* For a "Soviet economist" to say that those
>> "things" were media for exploitation of the waged workers employed to
>> operate them was a sure way to earn a long stay in an "unwaged" Siberian
> WTF, dude?! Rubin was murdered in the purges! If you're gonna go ad hominem, at least try to aim for accuracy, otherwise, please do try to reign in your inner-Trotsky.
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